Two contradictory verses? meaning? oh! Am I going for a discourse here? I'm merely a simple Christian trying to get thru the verses I am hearing every day. And I don't mean to offend any scholarly people here because I am not licensed to make an official, just thoughts from a widow who only longed to understand the context and simplify it to layman’s term for MY understanding. I am letting go of etymology, leaving it for the scholars to discuss further since I really don’t want a scholarly and academic discussion. Not the least to say, a lot of contradictory verses, that often confuses readers. I only mean to make a decent discussion perhaps with myself and some audience?! Remember, these articles can be downloaded for future reads! Oh! I have a growing audience, I'm not loving it thought nor proud of it.
Matthew 7:5 You hypocrite! First take the beam out of your own eye, and then you will see clearly to remove the speck from your brother’s eye.
John 7:24 KJVS [24] Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous judgment.
Reading it so many times, I really don’t see any difference at all. They are written differently but same message goes. Written in different perspectives. Mark and John are two different persons and basically would convey messages differently but not contradictory.
“One way of understanding the great differences in the Gospels is to look at them through the modern lens of marketing… The intelligent marketer would craft the message in ways that explicitly communicate to the desired audience. The four Gospel writers were no different. They had a story to tell and a message to share, but they also had a definitive audience to which that message was intended.” ( The difference between the four gospels, Rev. Dave Rogers)
Do I need to say more? In plain words, marketing Jesus with target audience. Mark’s statement are more direct, calling or addressing directly “hypocrites!” while John euphemizes “the appearance”. There is not much of a difference if you really look at it. So to put this bluntly “a hyprocite really judges a person without minding his own action which is either just as unclean or more” while the other one implores “people uses appearances, pretends someone righteous by making elaborate display of their goodness on center stage while what they do at back stage is extremely abhorable, so extreme diligence and precaution should be duly exercised and at the same time, when we judge it will be of no pretense”. So, what's the difference? Really? Just how it is conveyed. People should be able to see through “there are wolves dress in sheep coats” on both side of course. I think this is so as the proceeding scenarios on John is a woman accused of adultery.
John 8: 3 The teachers of the law and the Pharisees brought in a woman caught in adultery. They made her stand before the group 4 and said to Jesus, “Teacher, this woman was caught in the act of adultery. 5 In the Law Moses commanded us to stone such women. Now what do you say?” 6 They were using this question as a trap, in order to have a basis for accusing him. But Jesus bent down and started to write on the ground with his finger. 7 When they kept on questioning him, he straightened up and said to them, “Let any one of you who is without sin be the first to throw a stone at her.”
Bottomline is, people find things written in the bible to suit their cases. But I love how Jesus reveal their true intentions, "Then cast the stone first those who have not sinned.", well, Jesus is really amazing. The Bible has nothing vaguely stated there, nothing ambigious. Everything is black and white. The problem actually lies on how people uses the bible to shield themselves. Many of those who judges others by claiming "good judgment" actually hides the true self, perhaps the most notible reason is that they're trying to compare themselves of the evilness of the people that surrounds them. Living in the basis of doing lesser evil? Shouldn't be. If we really put Christ into our hearts, we shouldn't find any justification in our righteousness instead we should just do as exactly what is written, no excuses! Like in the 10 Commandment it is clearly stated that "thou shall not commit adultery". Then what constitutes adultery? Married with sexual relationship with single, or even the mere sexual thought is already enough to constitute the act. Then I find people justifying it through "divorce", but the reality bites, it was permitted to divorce but has to live in celibacy or be reunited!? Just my thoughts. God bless.
Jan 22, 2022
Image: Pinterest1. The difference between the four gospels
Rev. Dave Rogers
https://www.currentargus.com/story/life/faith/2019/01/26/difference-between-four-gospels/2677881002/
2. http://www.gettoknowthebible.net/bible-questions/what-is-the-purpose-of-four/index.html to them, He that is without sin among you, let him first cast a stone at her.
I've always had this question come up when reading that part in John. "Let him who is without sin throw the first stone." Wasn't Jezus without sin? So shouldn't Jezus, after that statement pick up a stone and throw it? Or was Jezus not without sin, maybe because, like all humans, he was burdened with the original sin? Or was he actually immortal, had he not been crucified as a sacrifice for our salvation?