Join 47,377 users and earn money for participation

Why did John use "spirit" instead of "prophet" in 1 John 1-3

0 0 boost
Avatar for Opeyemioguns
Written by   44
5 months ago

1 Corinthians 14:37  If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.

* There is a particular spirit on a particular prophet

1 Corinthians 14:32  And the spirits of the prophets are subject to the prophets.

* Every particular prophet has particular spirit

* Apostle John mean a prophet is being recognize by the spirit in him

* The spirit in prophet Amos is the spirit of vengeance while other prophets too have their spirits in them

1 John 4:1-3  Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.

Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:

And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.

* Every spirit that confess Jesus Christ come in the flesh is a spirit of God but if you hear somebody preaching Jesus Christ is a man,  that is a spirit of anti-christ

2 John 1:7  For many deceivers are entered into the world, who confess not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh. This is a deceiver and an antichrist.

1
$ 0.01
$ 0.01 from @TheRandomRewarder
Enjoyed this article?  Earn Bitcoin Cash by sharing it! Explain
...and you will also help the author collect more tips.

Comments